Here's a question for notaries.

If a seller, a spouse in a messy divorce, clearly states that they are signing the deed under duress, do you sign and seal the acknowledgment?

I say no.

What if this person is forced under duress to sign a separate document which says they are not signing the deed under duress?  I know it sounds implausible but that's what one of our readers says happened to her.

How would you handle that situation?